TNCC Trauma Nursing Process (TNP) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which action is recommended for patients with alterations in mental status during trauma care?
• Which action is commonly anticipated when alterations in airway patency are noted?
• Baseline GCS is important because...
• What is the primary safety consideration when warming a patient?
• How is Glasgow Coma Scale interpreted in a trauma patient, and what GCS indicates immediate airway protection?
• Which of the following is a recommended reevaluation item?
• Which source is NOT listed as an option for obtaining pertinent history in the material?
• Which clinical findings indicate the need for immediate needle decompression in suspected tension pneumothorax?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an example to inquire about when assessing airway patency and protection?
• In the trauma secondary survey, what does the SAMPLE history stand for?
• After completing all interventions and reassessments, what is the primary decision point for this patient?
• Identify which option is NOT listed as an example for obtaining pertinent history?
• In LMNOP, what does P indicate?
• Which intervention may be appropriate when alterations in neurological status are noted with GCS?
• Which condition makes CT imaging appropriate for detailed injury assessment?
• When assessing for alertness with AVPU, which question best describes the evaluation?
• Head-to-toe assessment includes which of the following?
• In single-starred criteria, what does letter E stand for?
• Even if the patient is alert and can cooperate, you must demonstrate manual opening of the airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver.
• In unstable patients with suspected thoracoabdominal injury, which imaging modality is preferred for rapid evaluation?
• Which statement best describes the principles of damage control resuscitation in TNCC?
• Which condition would contraindicate posterior surface inspection?
• Which of the following is one of the four potential single-starred criteria?
• What is the rationale for maintaining spinal precautions during movement from scene to hospital?
• What is the primary purpose of the Primary Survey in TNCC, and list the components in order?
• GCS and pupil findings guide neuro assessment in trauma.
• Which sign or combination indicates a need for urgent neurosurgical consultation in a trauma patient?
• What does it mean to have single-starred criteria?
• Which action supports prevention of coagulopathy during damage control resuscitation?
• Parkland formula monitoring in burn resuscitation.
• What is the significance of exposure in the Secondary Survey, and how is the patient protected from hypothermia?
• Which action describes assessing the endotracheal tube position and securement?
• In suspected spinal injury, which airway management technique helps protect the spine?
• Which of the following is included in labs to assess compatibility in trauma care?
• What action is essential when managing external bleeding?
• Trauma room preparations may also include equipment suitable for which patient population?
• Which of the following is an example to inquire about during airway patency assessment?
• In the secondary survey, the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS stands for which set of injury findings?
• Which airway management approach is typically used to rapidly secure a definitive airway while protecting the cervical spine?
• In LMNOP, what does 'O' represent?
• In the LMNOP framework, what does L stand for?
• When a patient is intubated, what must you communicate?
• A pelvic binder should be avoided in which scenario?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a method to secure an endotracheal tube?
• In single-starred criteria, how is the sequence of tasks treated?
• The general impression is step 4, and if you already know the patient is unresponsive, they won't be alert or responsive.
• After completing the head-to-toe assessment in the trauma nursing process, which of the following is NOT listed as an example of an intervention or diagnostic?
• During resuscitation, which statement best reflects the role of warmth in trauma care?
• Which imaging modalities may be used as indicated after the head-to-toe assessment?
• After reevaluations are performed, which statement best describes the reevaluation scope?
• GCS documentation is considered non-testable if sedation or paralytics interfere with communication. True or false?
• How are full-thickness burns managed differently from partial-thickness burns in the trauma setting?
• Which statement best describes transfer decisions during trauma assessment?
• DCAP-BTLS stands for which of the following?
• What is a systematic process to guide trauma patient care?
• During airway management in trauma, what protective measure is essential to protect the cervical spine?
• GCS should be determined before or after sedation and intubation?
• Trauma room preparations might include which of the following items?
• General pediatric considerations differentiating TNCC from adult trauma care.
• What is the first double-starred assessment and which step does it belong to?
• What is the appropriate use of a tourniquet in trauma care?
• Under single-starred criteria, when should blood glucose be checked?
• Which statement best describes warmth in patient care?
• What are the components assessed by the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• After how many breaths should you assess for evidence of exhaled carbon dioxide after intubation?
• Which statement about the general impression is correct?
• Which item is NOT among the four potential single-starred criteria?
• What does the E-FAST exam extension add to the FAST exam?
• Which of the following is listed as a lab test in the material?
• Which laboratory panel is included within Labs?
• Which statement correctly differentiates closed and open pneumothoraces and their management?
• In trauma room preparations, which equipment is specifically noted for addressing obesity?
• Which monitoring device should be applied when circulatory alterations are suspected?
• In monitoring urinary output, which option is listed as a monitoring method?
• What is the primary goal of damage control resuscitation?
• How do you assess ETT position?
• Which signs are most consistent with peritonitis as opposed to a simple abdominal contusion?
• Pediatric airway differences.
• Posterior surface inspection is included as a potential single-starred criterion unless there is a contraindication.
• Pregnant trauma ED considerations.
• Which interventions are potentially included in the general impression?
• Which option would you consult to obtain prehospital information?
• Capnography is recommended for all patients and vital for which group?
• When applying ice for comfort, which risk must be considered?
• IV resuscitation should be initiated for which condition?
• Chest trauma evaluation action in the presence of signs of chest injury.
• Flail chest management.
• Which item is included as part of single-starred criteria related to pain?
• What is permissive hypotension in trauma, and in which scenarios is it generally considered?
• During hemorrhagic shock resuscitation, which approach is prioritized?
• During preparation and triage, which question might you ask yourself?
• When newly identified life-threatening alterations are identified, what should you do?
• Pain management in rib injuries to prevent complications.
• After completing the head-to-toe examination, what should the learner summarize?
• In trauma, what is the role of the secondary survey in identifying occult injuries?
• Parkland formula.
• The P component in LMNOP emphasizes which assessment?
• Which intervention may be appropriate to maintain airway patency?
• Kehr's sign indicates injury to which organ?
• What is the role of lactate and base deficit in trauma resuscitation?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the double-starred criteria used in the initial TNP assessment?
• When assessing circulation, what two elements must be identified?
• During the general impression, why might you reprioritize?
• Which intervention is most foundational to manage altered circulation in an emergency?
• Capnography is vital for which patients?
• If intubated, you must assess which two things?
• In facial trauma when airway cannot be secured via intubation, what procedure provides a definitive airway quickly?
• What is the recommended method for establishing vascular access when IV is difficult in a severely injured patient?
• MOI significance in secondary survey and triage decisions.
• Which findings suggest splenic injury in blunt abdominal trauma?
• Which option represents a valid history data source listed in the material?
• In single-starred criteria, what does letter D stand for?
• Which of the following is a non-pharmacological comfort measure?
• Which of the following actions is NOT a typical pre-arrival action for a trauma patient?
• For open pneumothorax, what management is recommended?
• In thoracic trauma, what is suspected with a large-volume chest hemorrhage causing instability, and how is it managed?
• What is the initial management for suspected pelvic fracture with hemodynamic instability?
• Which of the following is commonly included as an intervention or diagnostic after the head-to-toe assessment?
• To assess pelvic instability, you first apply gentle pressure over the iliac crests downward and medially. If the iliac crests are stable, what should you apply pressure on next?
• In blunt abdominal trauma, which findings suggest hollow viscus injury?
• Role of pelvic binders in unstable pelvic fracture.
• During the Disability assessment in the primary survey, which statement best describes the neurological status evaluation?
• Which is a non-pharmacological comfort measure in the trauma protocol?
• When donning PPE, you should consider two things. Which pair correctly lists these considerations?
• How should hypothermia be prevented during trauma resuscitation?
• In the absence of contraindications, turning the patient is used to quickly assess which area?
• Which item is listed as a potential intervention or diagnostic after the head-to-toe assessment?
• Preparation and triage in TNP includes activation of the trauma team, role assignment, preparation of the trauma room, and donning PPE. Which statement best describes this?
• In trauma care, what is the primary purpose of damage-control surgery?
• Which source is explicitly a method to obtain pertinent history from the material?
• Which airway adjunct is appropriate for an awake trauma patient without gag reflex, and which should be avoided if facial trauma is present?
• Which intervention may be appropriate when breathing efficacy is compromised?
• Which item is listed as a potential trauma room preparation to facilitate warming fluids?
• In the LMNOP framework, what does M emphasize?
• When alterations are identified during the general impression, you must do what? Then what?
• What strategies help prevent hypothermia during trauma care, and why is this important?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes an open pneumothorax from a closed pneumothorax?
• What is the next step after confirming endotracheal intubation in the trauma protocol?
• In a patient with altered circulatory status, which statement about IV/IO access is correct?
• What is the indication for pericardiocentesis in trauma, and how is it generally managed in the ED?
• In single-starred criteria, what do letters A represent?
• In single-starred criteria, what do letters B represent?
• Which option is explicitly included as an option for obtaining pertinent history?
• Which action helps identify the source of internal hemorrhage in a patient with altered circulation?
• After identifying potential interventions and completing your assessments and interventions, you should ask yourself what findings will you continue to reevaluate while the patient is in your care?
• Which sounds are described as examples to note during airway assessment?
• Indications for chest tube insertion in trauma include:
• Which item is an example of what to inquire about when assessing breathing efficacy?
• When opening the airway with suspected cervical spine injury, which two actions are required?
• Should you delay removal of a transport device if possible?
• In open pneumothorax management, what dressing should be applied?
• Which item is a mnemonic used to obtain pertinent history?
• Which action assesses patency of prehospital IV lines?
• Which method helps assess perfusion by comparing different pulse sites?
• What is the purpose of the FAST exam in trauma assessment?
• What does double-starred criteria mean?
• Which action directly helps remove obstruction in the airway?
• In the Primary Survey's Disability assessment, what is the focus?
• During the general impression, can assessment and interventions be performed simultaneously if multiple team members are present?
• Which of the following best captures the warmth guidance described?
• Within LMNOP, what is encompassed by 'P'?
• Which item is described as a means to obtain pertinent history in trauma care?
• When the patient is alert and can cooperate, is it acceptable to ask the patient to open their mouth to assess the airway?
• Which device is used to detect exhaled carbon dioxide after intubation?
• In severe facial trauma where intubation may be difficult, what is a temporizing airway option and when is it indicated?
• If the patient was deemed unresponsive in step 4, you do not need to assess level of alertness AVPU.
• The general impression in TNP is to assess for obvious uncontrolled external hemorrhage or unresponsiveness/apnea and the need to reprioritize to C-ABC. This is:
• What details should be documented for each DCAP-BTLS finding during the secondary survey?
• What is the recommended route for obtaining vascular access when IV access is not feasible?
• During assessment of alertness and airway, you must simultaneously ______.
• In monitoring urinary output, which of the following is a recommended consideration?
• When providing warmth to a patient, which risk must be considered?
• After removing clothing to inspect for injuries, what is the immediate action?
• Why rib fractures are a marker for underlying chest injury.
• During assisted ventilation after intubation, what should you observe?
• What is the recommended technique for spinal immobilization during transfer of a suspected spinal injury?
• In the LMNOP mnemonic, what does the 'M' stand for?
• When alterations in airway patency and protection are identified during assessment, what should you do?
• Which option best describes the overall guidance about warmth described in the material?
• What is the initial management for suspected hepatic injury with hemodynamic instability?
• Which signs are commonly associated with peritonitis in abdominal trauma?
• In a trauma patient with reduced level of consciousness and facial trauma, what is the immediate airway management priority?
• The A-E criteria used in the initial trauma assessment comprises which components?
• What are classic signs of hemorrhagic shock and the initial management priorities?
• To address airway management or IV access challenges in trauma, which equipment is noted as part of trauma room preparations?
• Which step explicitly assesses the effectiveness of breathing prior to airway management?
• Which item is explicitly listed as an airway assessment item?
• Which imaging modality is used to perform FAST and E-FAST assessments?
• Which statement about preventing hypothermia in trauma care is true?
• Which of the following is a non-pharmacological comfort measure?
• After all reevaluations are done, what is the last thing to ask?
• What is the purpose of the SAMPLE history in the trauma secondary survey?
• During post-intubation care, which assessment is performed first?
• In the LMNOP sequence, what does 'N' signify?
• Which statement best describes end-tidal CO2 monitoring after intubation?
• When you remove all clothing, you are also performing what?
• Warmth may be appropriate, but what must be considered before applying warmth?
• Pupil reactivity is part of which trauma assessment component?
• In the LMNOP framework, what does O represent?
• Pain in trauma assessment should be measured using which of the following?
• In trauma, when is a pelvic binder indicated, and where should it be applied?
• If intubated, which assessment is performed to verify correct placement?
• In single-starred criteria, what does letter C stand for?
• Why is frequent reassessment essential during trauma resuscitation?
• Which item is included under Labs in the protocol?
• For double-starred criteria, which two items must be completed prior to moving to the next step?
• Identify the following as a valid history data source: which option is a mnemonic used to obtain pertinent history?
• What blood product strategy is commonly emphasized in massive transfusion protocols in TNCC?
• Double-starred criteria include letters ___-___.